Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations,
baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the
Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19); does this not prove that the
`Doctrine of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated
and promulgated by Jesus Christ himself?
With all due respect, we tend to disagree in view of the following
1. `Peake's Commentary on the Bible' published since 1919, is
universally welcomed and considered to be the standard reference
book for the students of the Bible. Commenting on the above
verse it records; "This mission is described in the language of the
church and most commentators doubt that the trinitarian formula was
original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does
not know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed
in the name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."
2. Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor
of New Testament, writes in his book `For Christ's Sake'; "All but
the most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter
part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere
else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence
available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church
did not baptise people using these words - baptism was "into" or
"in" the name of Jesus alone."
3. The above command (authentic or otherwise) does not indicate
that the three names mentioned in the formula are or were, "co-
equal" in their status, as well as, were "co-eternal" in the time
frame, to conform with the acknowledged `Doctrine of Trinity'.
4. If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day
One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one
was "greater or lesser" in status, than why is one called the
Father and the other His begotten Son?
5. Did the act of "Begetting" take place?
If YES, where was the "Begotten Son" before the act?
If NO, why call him the "Begotten Son"?
"And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized
in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'"
(Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have
disobeyed the specific command of Jesus Christ for baptising in the
three names and baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ, alone.